- DaSaGwaLv 76 年前最佳解答
Yes, both can mean " extremely hungry", there is a difference:
from the spelling, "famished" ends with "ed". It indicated that "famished" is used in a passive voice (被動語態). It means "be made or become very hungry". For example:
After a full day of skiing, I was feeling absolutely famished
From the example sentence, you can tell "famished" is due to "a full of skiing".
As for "ravenous", for example:
By the time dinner was ready, we were ravenous.
From the above sentence, you can tell "ravenous" is NOT in a passive way. However, you can still use "famished", then it means "the dinner makes me feel very hungry." (It might be because dinner look very delicious).
2014-05-25 06:40:06 補充：
Yes, I agree with you, for a 3rd grade student, this kind of question is too much. However, if this student has a good English background, then knowing the difference is NOT a bad idea.
2014-05-25 06:43:59 補充：
due to "a full of skiing" ==> due to "a full day of skiing"
Skiing made me feel famished. Without skiing, I might not feel the same degree of hunger. Hence, "being famished" is caused by skiing.
2014-05-25 07:06:13 補充：
Yes, it is treated as an adjective, but since it is derived from "famish," so it still carries the meaning of the verb, especially, in its passive voice. Of course, in translation, we will not use "被 …". However, its implied meaning is still there.
2014-05-25 11:51:17 補充：
Maybe, I shall not use passive voice (被動語態), instead I shall use passive way (被動的方式). Passive voice is a kind of verb action, and passive way is just a state of situation (一種情況狀態).
2014-05-25 22:21:25 補充：
This kind of mistake can only mean "Chinglish"!
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- Dark HelmetLv 76 年前
What is being implied when you use "since" and "so" in the same sentence?
- 知足常樂Lv 76 年前
2014-05-25 05:38:12 補充：
Actually "famished" as a past participle is regarded as an adjective.